• Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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    16 hours ago

    I’ve already explained, it was a way for the Soviets to limit Nazi advances without breaking the pact. Neither country expected the pact to last very long, this wasn’t a coordinated plan to take over Europe but a way to stall the Nazi advance. Your point would require the Soviets to have genuinely wished to be allies of the Nazis, and to intend on doing so throughout all of World War II.

    • RaivoKulli@sopuli.xyzBanned from community
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      16 hours ago

      It clearly delineates their spheres of influence and how they’ll divide Poland after the war. Damage control, opportunistic land grab, whatever side you fall on, I don’t think the fact of the agreement is in doubt (though there’s still a conspiracy theory about it)

      • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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        16 hours ago

        It was an agreement for the Nazis to not press beyond certain boundaries, which is what prevented Poland from being entirely colonized by the genocidal Nazis, and the intent on the Soviet side was to stall the Nazis. There were no long-term plans for alliance.

        • RaivoKulli@sopuli.xyzBanned from community
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          16 hours ago

          It was an agreement for the Nazis to not press beyond certain boundaries

          And for Soviet Union to not press beyond a certain boundary. That’s how those divisions generally work.

          • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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            16 hours ago

            The Soviet Union was not on a quest to colonize Poland, it didn’t have the same economic base pushing for imperialism that the dying capitalist system of Nazi Germany had. The USSR needed to internally industrialize, Nazi Germany needed to colonize. Do you think countries go to war for fun?

            • RaivoKulli@sopuli.xyzBanned from community
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              16 hours ago

              Like mentioned before, you were arguing they weren’t planning on attacking and dividing Poland. The division is clearly there so that part should be something we at least agree on.

              • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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                16 hours ago

                There was no agreement to attack and divide Poland. There was an agreement that if Poland fell, the Nazis would not extend beyond a certain line, and that line was largely territory Poland had recently siezed from Lithuania and Ukraine.

                • RaivoKulli@sopuli.xyzBanned from community
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                  16 hours ago

                  Yes the agreement that “if Poland happened to fell (for no particular reason), this is the lines according to which we’ll divide it”. And then very soon after signing the agreement they both invaded Poland and divided it according to that agreement.

                  • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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                    16 hours ago

                    If this was a secret agreement, then why not agree to invade jointly? Why wait 17 days, after Poland had fallen to the Nazis? Because it was always a way to stall the Nazis.